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Chapter 12

MCQ (PSM) - Curtsey Dr. K. N. Trivedi - Prof and Head (Community Medicine)

 

1 Pollution of water is indicated by all except
  a chloride
  b fluoride
  c nitrate
  d nitrite
2 The residual chlorine content of drinking water should be
  a 0.5 ppm
  b 0.6 ppm
  c 0.8 ppm
  d 1.2 ppm
3 The size of sand particles in slow filter is
  a 0.15to0.35mm
  b 0.36to0.45mm
  c 0.48to0.59mm
  d 0.61to0.79mm
4 Size of sand particle in rapid filter is
  a 0.6to2mm
  b 2.5to3 mm
  c 4to 5.2 mm
  d 5.4 to 6 mm
5 Following are true regarding chlorination except
  a residual chlorine of 0.5 mg per lit
  b contact period 30 mts
  c water should not be turbid
  d chlorine demand shold be estimated
6 A chloride level of------is acceptable by WHO
  a 0.1mcg/L
  b 0.5mg/L
  c 10mg/l
  d 200mg/l
7 Residual chlorine in chlorination of water should be
  a 1 mg per lit. after 1 hour
  b 1 mg per lit after half an hour
  c 0.5 mg per lit after 1 hour
  d 0.5 mg per lit after half hour
8 Contact period for chlorination of water is
  a 15 mts
  b 30 mts
  c 1 hr
  d 2 hrs
9 The prescribed chloride content of drinking water should be below
  a 100mg/lit
  b 200mg/lit
  c 300mg/lit
  d 500mg/lit
10 The free chlorine in chlorinated water shold be
  a 0.2mg/lit
  b 200mg/lit
  c 0.5mg/lit
  d 0.75mg/lit
11 In Ortho toludine test all are correct except
  a free chlorine is estimated
  b 0.1 ml of reagent is used for 1 ml of water
  c yellow colour
  d read in 10 seconds
12 In an epidemic of bacillary desentery residual chlorine in ppm should be
  a 0.1
  b 0.5
  c 0.8
  d 1
13 All of following are false about bleaching powder except
  a contains 20% available chlorine
  b 20% solution use for disinfection of feces
  c unstable compound on storage
  d not use for disinfection of feces and urine
14 Organism not indicative of fecal pollution is
  a E.coli
  b Cl. Perfrigens
  c streptococcus
  d staphylococcus
15 Water is considered potable if there is
  a noE.coli per 100 ml of water
  b 1 E.coli per 100 ml of water
  c 10 E.coli per 100ml of water
  d 100 E.coli per 100 ml of water
16 True about purity of deep well water is all except
  a chloride-200meq/l
  b ammonia-0.05meq/l
  c nitrites-0.01meq/l
  d albuminoid ammonia
17 Nitrate level in water should not be more than ___ mg /lit
  a 0.5
  b 1
  c 2
  d 4
18 The presence of the following substance reveals the fact of postcontamination of water
  a chlorides
  b nitrates
  c sulphates
  d nitrites
19 Water requirement per day per head is
  a 150 200 litres
  b 100 litres
  c 250 litres
  d 300 500litres
20 sodium permutit is used for
  a disinfection of water
  b sterilisation of water
  c removal of hardness of water
  d testing residual chlorine
21 Presumptive count includes
  a no E. coli
  b coliforms but not only E.coli
  c gram negative bacilli
  d any bacteria
22 A water sample is said to be moderately hard when hardness producing ion is about
  a 50 ppm
  b 50to150ppm
  c 150to300ppm
  d 300ppm
23 Safe limit of flourine in drinking water is ___ mg per lit.
  a 0.5 to 0.8
  b 0.1 to 0.3
  c 1
  d 1.5
24 The maximum permissible flouride content of water is
  a 0.8 ppm
  b 2 ppm
  c 3 ppm
  d 5 ppm
25 The amt. Of good quality bleaching poeder required for chlorinating a round well measuring 4 mtrs. Diameter and depth of water column 6 mtrs. To get IPPM of residual chlorine when the horrok's test gives definite blue colour in the 3rd cup onwards is ---gms
  a 993.8
  b 99.38
  c 9.938
  d 0.9939
26 The best indicator of level of air pollution is
  a H2
  b CO2
  c N2
  d SO2
27 Air pollution may cause
  a dermatitis
  b carcinoma bronchus
  c bronchiectasis
  d pneumonia
28 Soiling index is an indicator of
  a air pollution
  b water pollution
  c fecal pollution
  d sand pollution
29 Corrected effective temp. is labelled as comfortable
  a between 70to76
  b between 77to80
  c between 81to82
  d above 83
30 The electroststic precipitator are used in prevention of
  a radiation risk
  b air pollution emmission
  c mosquito nuisence
  d diffuse vibrations
31 The cancerogenic material that has very long latent period is
  a benzopyrine
  b vinyl chloride
  c asbestos
  d estrogens
32 The acceptable level for physical comfort is
  a
  b
  c
  d
33 Soiling index is an indicator of
  a water pollution
  b air pollution
  c sand pollution
  d excreta pollution
34 Recommanded reflection factors include each of the following, except
  a cellings 60%
  b roofs 50 %
  c Walls 50 % to 60 %
  d furnotures 30 to 40%
35 It is recommanded that in living rooms , daylight factor shoulad be at least
  a 0.01
  b 0.02
  c 0.03
  d 0.04
36 Light requirement in watch manufacturing company is
  a 20000 -3000lux
  b 5000-10000lux
  c 100000 -20000lux
  d 50000lux
37 Under limit of tolarance of noise per day
  a 10dB
  b 85dB
  c 90dB
  d 100dB
38 Exposure to noise -----causes permanent hearing loos
  a 90db
  b 100db
  c 125db
  d 160db
39 Auditory fatigue occurs at ___Hz
  a 2000
  b 3000
  c 4000
  d 8000
40 A rupture of ear drum may actually occur at a decibel level above
  a 40
  b 80
  c 120
  d 160
41 Tympanic membrane ruptures at a sound level above
  a 120 dB
  b 55 dB
  c 85 dB
  d 160dB
42 Kata thermometer is used to measure
  a maximum temp.
  b minimum temp.
  c radiant heat
  d cooling power of air
43 The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded , poorly ventilated room are all except
  a increase in temperature
  b increase in humidity
  c increase in CO2
  d decrease in air change
44 The disposal of night soil and refuge by
  a chemical sterilisation
  b burning
  c composting
  d none of these
45 Pit latrine has depth of ___ ft.
  a 2 to 4
  b 4 to 6
  c 6 to 10
  d 10 to 12
46 A drinking water well must be ___ ft. away from the source of contamination
  a 25
  b 50
  c 75
  d 100
47 Accepted depth of water in water seal latrine should not be more than ____ cm
  a 2.5
  b 4
  c 5
  d 7.5
48 Strength of sewage is expressed terms of
  a biological oxygene demand
  b chemical oxygene demand
  c suspended solids
  d E.coli count
49 Hard tick transmit
  a oroyo fever
  b oriental sore
  c leishmaniasis
  d tick typhus
50 A type of tertiary waste water treatment process is
  a reverse osmosis
  b sedimentation
  c both
  d neither
51 In National Goitre control programme iodine suplementation is implemented in
  a sub himalayas area
  b sub himalayas plus hilly area
  c sub himalayas area plus northern area
  d whole of India
52 Gover ment of India accepted policy of iodisation of entire ina phase manner by
  a 1990
  b 1992
  c 2000
  d none of above
53 A common calculation used in assesing the effect of waste on the quality of the water being tested is
  a entrophication
  b biological oxygene demand
  c both
  d neither
54 An inexpensive and efficient method of sewage disposal for a small community is
  a river outfall
  b oxidatin pond
  c trickling filter
  d activated sludge
55 DDT acts as
  a contect poison
  b repellant
  c stomoch poison
  d all of above
56 A number of studies have showen that insecticide DDT when ingested by an animal is more than likely to concentrate in the
  a fatty tissue
  b brain
  c thyroid
  d bones
57 The biological trasmisiion in case of filarisis is
  a cyclopropagative
  b cyclodevelopmental
  c propagative
  d none of above
58 Dose of DDT for effective control of mosquito is
  a 1 to 2 gm per m2
  b 1 mg per m2
  c 2 to 4 mg per m2
  d 2 to 4 gm per m2
59 Diseases spread by mosquito are
  a malaria
  b toxoplasmosis
  c histoplasma
  d sleeping sickness
60 All true abour anpheles mosquito
  a eggs are boat shapedand provided with lateral floats
  b larva rest parelle to water surface
  c larva siphon tube
  d pupae have short and broad siphon tube
61 Nuisance mosquito is
  a Anapheles
  b Culex
  c Aedes
  d Teste fly
62 Tiger mosquito are
  a anopheles larva only
  b culex
  c ades
  d mansoides
63 Culex mosquito can transmit
  a malaria
  b kala azar
  c dengue fever
  d none of above
64 Paris green is larvicidal for
  a anopheles
  b culex
  c ades
  d none
65 Malathion spray is effective for ____ months
  a 1
  b 2
  c 3
  d 4
66 Paris green is a type of
  a repellent
  b fumigent
  c stomach poison
  d contect poison
67 Diethyl tolumide is an effective
  a larvicidal
  b agent against larve of pupae
  c repellent
  d space spray
68 Diseases trasmitted by sand fly are all except
  a relapsing fever
  b kala azar
  c oriental sore
  d oraya fever
69 Epidemic typhus is transmitted by
  a flea
  b mite
  c tick
  d louse
70 Inhalation of cotton dust causes
  a byssinosis
  b bagassosis
  c anthracosis
  d mculdy lung
71 Endemic typhus is transmitted by
  a flea
  b mite
  c tick
  d louse
72 x
  a 10%acetic acid
  b 5%acetic acid
  c 1% propionic acid
  d 2% propionic acid
73 Transovarian transmision of infection occure in
  a fleas
  b ticks
  c mosquitoes
  d sand fly
74 Rocky mountain spotted fever is transmitted by
  a flea
  b mite
  c tick
  d louse
75 Transmitting agent of KFD is
  a flea
  b mite
  c tick
  d louse
76 Achild is brought to the PHC with scabies which of the following is not advised
  a parentera antibiotics treat the other members of the family
  b give bath
  c give bath and apply benzyl benzoate
  d Bed linen to be boiled
77 Drinking water is best made free of cyclops by
  a filtration
  b boiling
  c chlorination of wells every week
  d none of above
78 % of para para isomer in DDT
  a 20-30%
  b 40-50%
  c 60-70%
  d 70-80%
79 The following are organophophosphorous insecticides except
  a fenthion
  b parathion
  c chlorpyriphios
  d pyrethrum
80 The following are found resistant to DDT except
  a phlebotomus
  b culex fatigans
  c anopheles stephensi
  d musca domestica
81 The average of cyclops is about
  a 1mths
  b 2mths
  c 3mths
  d 4mths
82 The concentration of abate recommended for killing cyclops is-------mg/L
  a 2
  b 1
  c 5
  d 0.5
83 Abate is
  a carbamate
  b cyanide cpd
  c orgenophosphorous cpd
  d orgenochloride cpd
84 Which of the following is an organochlorine compound
  a gardona
  b dicapthon
  c propoxur
  d kepone
85 Which type of worker is commonly affected in Bysinossis
  a weavers
  b dyers
  c spinners
  d growers
86 Which is an insecticide of vegetable origin
  a abate
  b BHC
  c propoxur
  d Pyrethrum
87 Least toxic organophosphrous compond is
  a DDT
  b Paris green
  c Malathion
  d Parathion
88 Residual effect of malathion is for
  a 3mths
  b 6 mths
  c 9mths
  d 12 mths
89 Which of the following is an organo phosphate
  a DDT
  b aldrin
  c dueldrin
  d malathion
90 Duration maternal benefit under ESI act
  a 4 wk
  b 8 wk
  c 12 wk
  d 24 wk
91 Provisions of 1975 ESI act will not apply to
  a suger factories
  b cinema theatres
  c hotels
  d
92 Which one of the following diseases is not eligible for the extended benefit of 309 days in ESI scheme
  a leprosy
  b mental diseases
  c aplastic aneamia
  d TB
93 In the statement benefit under the ESI act to a insured person in the case of sickness is payable for a continuous maximum period of X days ,the daily rate being Y of the average daily wages, X and Y stand respectively for
  a 91 and 5/12
  b 91and7/12
  c 181and7/12
  d 181and5/12

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